Is there cascading permission?

Let's say that I have a view that has no explicit permissions defined for
users. Let's also say that I write a stored procedure which uses this view.
Now, if I give explicit permissions to a user to EXEC the stored procedure,
will the procedure execute correctly even if I don't explicitily give
permissions (such as SELECT) for the user to the view?
Michael HocksteinYes, it is.
"michael" <howlinghound@.nospam.nospam> wrote in message
news:CAB858A0-22F5-410C-842E-A0FE19C84343@.microsoft.com...
> Let's say that I have a view that has no explicit permissions defined for
> users. Let's also say that I write a stored procedure which uses this
> view.
> Now, if I give explicit permissions to a user to EXEC the stored
> procedure,
> will the procedure execute correctly even if I don't explicitily give
> permissions (such as SELECT) for the user to the view?
>
> --
> Michael Hockstein|||So, as long as a user has permissions to execute a stored procedure, the
stored procedure will execute correctly even if the user does not have
explicit permissions defined for the objects consumed within the stored
procedure?
If the user has permissions to execute a stored procedure but that the user
is explicitly denied permissions to objects consumed by the stored procedure
will the stored procedure still execute correctly?
--
Michael Hockstein
"Uri Dimant" wrote:

> Yes, it is.
> "michael" <howlinghound@.nospam.nospam> wrote in message
> news:CAB858A0-22F5-410C-842E-A0FE19C84343@.microsoft.com...
>
>|||So, if a user has permission to execute a stored procedure which in turn
consumes objects that the same user does not have explicit permissions
defined, the stored procedure will execute without security issues?
And, if a user has permission to execute a stored procedure which in turn
consumes objects that the same user is explicitly denied permisions, will th
e
stored procedure still execute without security issues?
Where can I find documentation on how this security cascades?
Michael Hockstein
"Uri Dimant" wrote:

> Yes, it is.
> "michael" <howlinghound@.nospam.nospam> wrote in message
> news:CAB858A0-22F5-410C-842E-A0FE19C84343@.microsoft.com...
>
>|||> So, as long as a user has permissions to execute a stored procedure, the
> stored procedure will execute correctly even if the user does not have
> explicit permissions defined for the objects consumed within the stored
> procedure?
yes, it will , unless you have dynamic sql within a stored procedure , then
you'll have to grant permision on undelaying tables

> If the user has permissions to execute a stored procedure but that the
> user
> is explicitly denied permissions to objects consumed by the stored
> procedure
> will the stored procedure still execute correctly?
Yes , it will
"michael" <howlinghound@.nospam.nospam> wrote in message
news:2DF71CC1-0FAF-4D82-A396-782AC53757C9@.microsoft.com...[vbcol=seagreen]
> So, as long as a user has permissions to execute a stored procedure, the
> stored procedure will execute correctly even if the user does not have
> explicit permissions defined for the objects consumed within the stored
> procedure?
> If the user has permissions to execute a stored procedure but that the
> user
> is explicitly denied permissions to objects consumed by the stored
> procedure
> will the stored procedure still execute correctly?
> --
> Michael Hockstein
>
> "Uri Dimant" wrote:
>|||See:
Security -Giving Permissions through Stored Procedures
http://www.sommarskog.se/grantperm.html
Arnie Rowland, Ph.D.
Westwood Consulting, Inc
Most good judgment comes from experience.
Most experience comes from bad judgment.
- Anonymous
"michael" <howlinghound@.nospam.nospam> wrote in message
news:F84CE2FB-8709-4B68-BB3C-9F86722B9A8E@.microsoft.com...[vbcol=seagreen]
> So, if a user has permission to execute a stored procedure which in turn
> consumes objects that the same user does not have explicit permissions
> defined, the stored procedure will execute without security issues?
> And, if a user has permission to execute a stored procedure which in turn
> consumes objects that the same user is explicitly denied permisions, will
> the
> stored procedure still execute without security issues?
> Where can I find documentation on how this security cascades?
>
> --
> Michael Hockstein
>
> "Uri Dimant" wrote:
>|||Thanks. I'll look at the reference. BTW, your tag line is one of my favorite
all time sayings.
Michael Hockstein
"Arnie Rowland" wrote:

> See:
> Security -Giving Permissions through Stored Procedures
> http://www.sommarskog.se/grantperm.html
>
> --
> Arnie Rowland, Ph.D.
> Westwood Consulting, Inc
> Most good judgment comes from experience.
> Most experience comes from bad judgment.
> - Anonymous
>
> "michael" <howlinghound@.nospam.nospam> wrote in message
> news:F84CE2FB-8709-4B68-BB3C-9F86722B9A8E@.microsoft.com...
>
>|||Check out 'ownership chains' in the SQL Server Books Online. The principal
is basically that permissions on indirectly referenced objects are not
needed as long as the objects (or schema on 2005) involved have the same
owner.
Hope this helps.
Dan Guzman
SQL Server MVP
"michael" <howlinghound@.nospam.nospam> wrote in message
news:0EED2BFD-1EA5-4DA8-A512-C4D8E91CEFC0@.microsoft.com...[vbcol=seagreen]
> Thanks. I'll look at the reference. BTW, your tag line is one of my
> favorite
> all time sayings.
> --
> Michael Hockstein
>
> "Arnie Rowland" wrote:
>